Top Document: [sci.astro] General (Astronomy Frequently Asked Questions) (2/9) Previous Document: B.17 How do I become an astronomer? What school should I attend? Next Document: B.20 Is it possible to see the Moon landing sites? See reader questions & answers on this topic! - Help others by sharing your knowledge [This question is most popular around Christmas time.] It is first and most important to stress that the Bible is a religious book. The Star of Bethlehem is mentioned only briefly in the book of Matthew. As such Matthew's description of it may have been religious rather than scientific. Indeed, it has also been pointed out that the Star story is similar to a Jewish Midrash, or moral tale illustrating a religious point, which does not necessarily have to have any basis in fact. Furthermore, at the time the Bible was written the word "star" could be used to indicate essentially anything in the sky. The Star of Bethlehem was almost certainly not what we understand today a star to be (namely a ball of gas shining by interior thermonuclear fusion). Nearly any spectacular sky phenomenon (comet, supernova, nova, etc.) has been identified as the Star of Bethlehem at one time or another, but recent interest has focussed on conjunctions of various planets, possibly in auspicious constellations. Two examples are the following: Michael Molnar has found that there was an double occultation of Jupiter in March and April of 6 BC in Aries that would have been calculable even by the means available to astrologers (which the Magi were) and that would have been of high significance in magian astrology (which differed somewhat from astrology of the modern era). However it would have been invisible, taking place in daylight. Thus there is a perfectly good explanation as to why Herod's courtiers had not seen it, but "wise men from the East" knew all about it. The occultation also provided a neat explanation of why the star was seen over Bethlehem---from Jerusalem, the second occultation's azimuth was close to the direction of the town. Molnar also points out that the Romans regarded the horoscope of Jesus as a royal one. And for a small commentary on one of Molnar's points, see my paper with Steve Fossey in The Observatory in 1998 or at <URL:http://www.star.ucl.ac.uk/~mmd/star.html>. On 3 May 19 BC, the planets Saturn and Mercury were in close conjunction, within 40 minutes of arc of each other. Then Saturn moved eastward to meet with Venus on 3 June 12 BC. During this conjunction the two were only 7.2 minutes of arc apart. Following this conjunction, on 3 August 12 BC, Jupiter and Venus came into close conjunction just before sunrise, coming within 4.2 minutes of arc from each other as viewed from earth, and appearing as a very bright morning star. This conjunction took place in the constellation Cancer, the "end" sign of the Zodiac. Ten months later, on 2 June 17 BC, Venus and Jupiter joined again, this time in the constellation Leo. The two planets were at best 6 seconds of arc apart; some calculations indicate that they actually overlapped each other. This conjunction occurred during the evening and would have appeared as one very bright star. Even if they were 6 seconds of arc apart, it would have required the sharpest of eyes to split the two, because of their brightness. (Some of this information is adapted from a longer article at <URL:http://sciastro.net/portia/articles/thestar.htm>. There is also other pertinent information at this site regarding the astronomy during that time.) User Contributions:Comment about this article, ask questions, or add new information about this topic:Top Document: [sci.astro] General (Astronomy Frequently Asked Questions) (2/9) Previous Document: B.17 How do I become an astronomer? What school should I attend? Next Document: B.20 Is it possible to see the Moon landing sites? Part0 - Part1 - Part2 - Part3 - Part4 - Part5 - Part6 - Part7 - Part8 - Single Page [ Usenet FAQs | Web FAQs | Documents | RFC Index ] Send corrections/additions to the FAQ Maintainer: jlazio@patriot.net
Last Update March 27 2014 @ 02:11 PM
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with stars, then every direction you looked would eventually end on
the surface of a star, and the whole sky would be as bright as the
surface of the Sun.
Why would anyone assume this? Certainly, we have directions where we look that are dark because something that does not emit light (is not a star) is between us and the light. A close example is in our own solar system. When we look at the Sun (a star) during a solar eclipse the Moon blocks the light. When we look at the inner planets of our solar system (Mercury and Venus) as they pass between us and the Sun, do we not get the same effect, i.e. in the direction of the planet we see no light from the Sun? Those planets simply look like dark spots on the Sun.
Olbers' paradox seems to assume that only stars exist in the universe, but what about the planets? Aren't there more planets than stars, thus more obstructions to light than sources of light?
What may be more interesting is why can we see certain stars seemingly continuously. Are there no planets or other obstructions between them and us? Or is the twinkle in stars just caused by the movement of obstructions across the path of light between the stars and us? I was always told the twinkle defines a star while the steady light reflected by our planets defines a planet. Is that because the planets of our solar system don't have the obstructions between Earth and them to cause a twinkle effect?
9-14-2024 KP